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An analyst working at a fixed-income investment firm is evaluating different approaches the firm uses to determine the Value at Risk (VaR) for its corporate bond portfolios, which are made up of a wide range of bonds with varying maturities. One method the analyst is contemplating is the use of a mapping technique to simplify the VaR estimation process. Which of the following statements would be correct for the analyst to assert regarding the mapping methods for fixed-income portfolios?
A
The VaR estimated using the principal mapping approach understates the true risk of a portfolio since it ignores coupon payments and any risk associated with them.
B
The VaR estimated using the duration mapping approach replaces the portfolio with a zero-coupon bond whose maturity equals the duration of the portfolio.
C
The VaR estimated using the principal mapping approach differs from the undiversified VaR estimated using the duration mapping approach due to an adjustment made for correlations.
D
The VaR estimated using the cash-flow mapping approach is less accurate than the VaR estimated using the duration mapping approach since it does not account for the timing of cash flows.