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In the context of valuing a 5-year callable option on a 5-year Treasury note using a well-validated pricing model, particularly under conditions of high current interest rate volatility, what is the most effective strategy for a financial analyst to manage the potential risk of encountering negative short-term interest rates?
A
When short-term rates are negative, the financial analyst adjusts the risk-neutral probabilities.
B
When short-term rates are negative, the financial analyst increases the volatility.
C
When short-term rates are negative, the financial analyst sets the rate to zero.
D
When short-term rates are negative, the financial analyst sets the mean-reverting parameter to 1.