Financial Risk Manager Part 2

Financial Risk Manager Part 2

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In a scenario involving a company's 1-day 99.5% Value at Risk (VaR) model over a period of 10 years, with a 95% confidence level, and assuming 250 trading days per year and that daily returns are independent and identically distributed (i.i.d.), what is the approximate maximum number of days in which the daily losses exceed the 1-day 99.5% VaR, yet still imply that the model is adequately calibrated?




Explanation:

The risk manager is conducting a backtest on a 1-day 99.5% Value-at-Risk (VaR) model over a 10-year period at a 95% confidence level. The model is considered correctly calibrated if the number of times the actual losses exceed the VaR is within an acceptable range. The daily returns are assumed to be independently and identically distributed, and there are 250 trading days in a year.

To determine the maximum number of acceptable exceedances, we use the following formula derived from the binomial distribution:

Z=x−pTp(1−p)TZ = \frac{x - pT}{\sqrt{p(1-p)T}}

Where:

  • ZZ is the Z-score for the confidence level.
  • xx is the number of exceedances.
  • pp is the probability of an exceedance, which is the left tail level of the VaR (1 - 0.995 = 0.005 or 0.5%).
  • TT is the total number of observations (250 trading days/year * 10 years = 2500).

Given a 95% confidence level, the Z-score zz is 1.96. Plugging in the values:

1.96=x−0.005×25000.005×(1−0.005)×25001.96 = \frac{x - 0.005 \times 2500}{\sqrt{0.005 \times (1 - 0.005) \times 2500}}

Solving for xx:

x≈19.4x \approx 19.4

Since we cannot have a fraction of an exceedance, we round down to the nearest whole number, which gives us 19. Therefore, the maximum number of daily losses exceeding the 1-day 99.5% VaR in 10 years that is acceptable to conclude that the model is calibrated correctly is 19.