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Answer: The price of the underlying asset is strongly negatively correlated with interest rates.
The correct answer is C, which states that the price of the underlying asset is strongly negatively correlated with interest rates. This correlation is the key factor that can explain why the futures price is less than the forward price, assuming no arbitrage opportunities exist and interest rates are expected to increase. In the context of financial markets, futures and forward contracts are both agreements to buy or sell an asset at a predetermined price at a future date. However, they differ in terms of their settlement and pricing mechanisms. Futures contracts are traded on standardized exchanges and have a daily settlement feature, while forward contracts are private agreements that do not have this daily settlement. When the underlying asset's price is negatively correlated with interest rates, it means that when the asset's price increases, interest rates tend to decrease, and vice versa. This relationship affects the pricing of futures and forward contracts differently. For futures contracts, the daily settlement feature means that gains or losses are realized and reinvested daily. If the underlying asset's price increases, the investor receives a gain that is then reinvested at the prevailing interest rate. However, due to the negative correlation with interest rates, this reinvestment rate is likely to be lower than average. This results in a slightly lower futures price compared to the forward price. On the other hand, forward contracts do not have a daily settlement feature, so they are not affected by the daily fluctuations in interest rates. The forward price is determined by the expected future spot price of the asset, adjusted for the time value of money, and is not influenced by the negative correlation between the asset price and interest rates. The other options provided (A, B, and D) would typically result in a higher futures price compared to the forward price. Lower liquidity (A), a higher likelihood of counterparty default (B), and higher transaction costs (D) on futures contracts would generally increase the cost of trading futures, making them more expensive than forward contracts. However, these factors are not the primary explanation for the price difference in this scenario, as the question specifies that the single factor acting alone should be considered.
Author: LeetQuiz Editorial Team
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A risk manager is evaluating the choice between purchasing a futures contract on an exchange and acquiring a forward contract from a counterparty. Both the futures and forward contracts have identical maturity and delivery terms. In a scenario where arbitrage opportunities do not exist and there is an expectation of rising interest rates, what could be a reasonable singular factor that would result in the futures price being lower than the forward price?
A
The futures contract is less liquid than the forward contract.
B
The forward contract counterparty is more likely to default.
C
The price of the underlying asset is strongly negatively correlated with interest rates.
D
The transaction cost on the futures contract is more than that on the forward contract.