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Financial Risk Manager Part 1

Financial Risk Manager Part 1

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For a corporate client's presentation prepared by a fixed-income consultant, which statement would accurately illustrate the application of key rate 01's and forward-bucket 01's in the context of monitoring and hedging interest rate risks?

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Explanation:

C is correct. This is the basic definition of forward bucket 'o1s. Option A is incorrect because the sum of key rate 'O1s is equal to a parallel shift in the par curve, not in the flat yield to maturity. Option B is incorrect as the par curve effects are not the same as spot curve effects. Option D is incorrect because the 30-year key rate shifts rates between 10 and 30 years, and thus has an effect on the cash flows of a 15-year coupon bond.

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