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Financial Risk Manager Part 1

Financial Risk Manager Part 1

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In the context of a binomial options pricing model under a risk-neutral measure, what is the probability that the stock price will increase in a single time step?

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Explanation:

The risk-neutral probability of an upward move in the first step is calculated using the formula for the up-movement probability in a binomial tree model, which is given by:

pup-movement=e(r−d)⋅Δt−du−dp_{\text{up-movement}} = \frac{e^{(r - d) \cdot \Delta t} - d}{u - d}pup-movement​=u−de(r−d)⋅Δt−d​

where:

  • eee is the base of the natural logarithm,
  • rrr is the annual risk-free rate,
  • ddd is 1 plus the percentage decrease in stock price when there's a down movement,
  • uuu is 1 plus the percentage increase in stock price when there's an up movement,
  • Δt\Delta tΔt is the time period in years.

Given:

  • r=12%r = 12\%r=12% with continuous compounding, so e0.12â‹…312e^{0.12 \cdot \frac{3}{12}}e0.12â‹…123​ represents the continuous compounding over a 6-month period,
  • d=0.8d = 0.8d=0.8 (since the stock price can go down by 20%),
  • u=1.2u = 1.2u=1.2 (since the stock price can go up by 20%).

Plugging these values into the formula gives:

pup-movement=e(0.12−0.8)⋅312−0.81.2−0.8=e−0.64⋅14−0.80.4p_{\text{up-movement}} = \frac{e^{(0.12 - 0.8) \cdot \frac{3}{12}} - 0.8}{1.2 - 0.8} = \frac{e^{-0.64 \cdot \frac{1}{4}} - 0.8}{0.4}pup-movement​=1.2−0.8e(0.12−0.8)⋅123​−0.8​=0.4e−0.64⋅41​−0.8​

After calculating the value, we get:

pup-movement=0.5761 or 57.61%p_{\text{up-movement}} = 0.5761 \text{ or } 57.61\%pup-movement​=0.5761 or 57.61%

The risk-neutral probability of the stock going down is then 1−pup-movement=1−0.5761=0.4239 or 42.39%1 - p_{\text{up-movement}} = 1 - 0.5761 = 0.4239 \text{ or } 42.39\%1−pup-movement​=1−0.5761=0.4239 or 42.39%. The correct answer is C, 57.6%.

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