
Explanation:
The risk-neutral probability of an up move is $57.61%$ (calculated in the previous question).
$50$$5.86$$50 \times 1.2 = 60$$1.65 > 0$$50 \times 0.8 = 40$$10.46 < 12$$50 \times 1.2 \times 1.2 = 72$$50 \times 1.2 \times 0.8 = 48$$50 \times 0.8 \times 0.8 = 32$The figure shows the stock price and the respective option value at each node. At the final nodes, the value is calculated as and the following payoffs are obtained:
Next, assess the option values at each of the other nodes as follows:
<details> <summary><strong>Step-by-Step Node Calculations</strong></summary>Node [B]: , which is greater than the intrinsic value of the option at this node equal to , so the option should not be exercised early at this node.
Node [C]: , which is lower than the intrinsic value of the option at this node equal to , so the option should be exercised early at node C with the value of the option at node C being $12$.
Node [A]: , which is greater than the intrinsic value of the option at this node equal to , so the option should not be exercised early at this node.
Therefore, the no-arbitrage price of the option at node A = USD $5.86$.
A is incorrect. USD $2.00$ is the intrinsic value of the option at the initial date, node A.
B is incorrect. USD $5.236`$ months.
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At Bank XYZ, a risk manager is evaluating the sale of a 6-month American-style put option on stock ABC, which does not pay dividends. The stock is currently trading at USD 50, and the option has a strike price of USD 52. To determine the no-arbitrage price of the option, the manager applies a two-step binomial tree model. In each step, the stock price may either rise or fall by 20%. The manager estimates an 80% probability of an upward movement and a 20% probability of a downward move in each period. The annual continuously compounded risk-free rate is 12%.
Determine which of the following prices is closest to the no-arbitrage price of the option:
A
USD 2.00
B
USD 5.23
C
USD 5.86
D
USD 6.04