A newly appointed risk analyst at an investment bank is assisting in the backtesting of the institution's Value at Risk (VaR) model. Currently, the bank calculates its 1-day VaR at a 95% confidence level. However, in line with the Basel framework's recommendations, the bank is considering shifting to a 99% confidence level for the 1-day VaR estimation. Which of the following statements about this proposed adjustment is correct?