
Explanation:
Explanation:
The correct answer is C because the upward asset revaluation decreases the debt-to-assets ratio, thereby improving the company's solvency ratio. The debt-to-assets ratio is calculated as total debt divided by total assets. Under the revaluation model, an initial upward revaluation increases the carrying amount of the asset class, which bypasses the income statement and directly increases equity under the revaluation surplus. This results in an increase in total assets and total equity, while total debt remains unchanged. Consequently, the numerator (total debt) remains the same, while the denominator (total assets) increases, leading to a lower debt-to-assets ratio.
Incorrect Options:
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An analyst gathers the following information (in € millions) about a manufacturing company's land reported under the revaluation model: Purchase price and fair value on 1 January Year 1: 20 Fair value at initial revaluation on 31 December Year 1: 26 All else being equal and ignoring taxes, the revaluation at 31 December Year 1 leads to a:
A
Higher quick ratio.
B
Higher total asset turnover.
C
Lower debt-to-assets ratio.
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