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In the context of behavioral finance, which of the following is least likely to be considered a behavioral bias contributing to pricing anomalies?
Explanation:
Explanation: Behavioral finance suggests that investors may exhibit biases such as loss aversion and overconfidence, which can lead to pricing anomalies. However, risk aversion is a fundamental assumption in traditional finance models, where investors uniformly dislike risk, whether it results in higher or lower returns than expected. Unlike loss aversion and overconfidence, risk aversion is not typically classified as a behavioral bias in this context. Therefore, risk aversion is the least likely to be considered a behavioral bias contributing to pricing anomalies.