LeetQuiz Logo
About•Privacy Policy•contact@leetquiz.com
RedditX
© 2025 LeetQuiz All rights reserved.
Financial Risk Manager Part 1

Financial Risk Manager Part 1

Get started today

Ultimate access to all questions.


Which of the following, if any, are true?

i) Value-at-Risk, VaR, is a not measure of downside risk

ii) Value-at-Risk, VaR, is the minimum loss at a given confidence level over a given period of time

iii) Value-at-Risk, VaR, does not capture catastrophic losses that have a small probability of occurring

Other Sources
Community
UAnonymous





Explanation:

Statement i is false because Value-at-Risk (VaR) is indeed a measure of downside risk, representing the potential loss in value of a portfolio over a defined period for a given confidence interval.

Statement ii is false because VaR measures the maximum potential loss at a given confidence level, not the minimum loss.

Statement iii is true because VaR does not account for extreme tail events or catastrophic losses that have a very small probability of occurring. VaR focuses on losses within the confidence interval and ignores the magnitude of losses beyond that threshold.

Therefore, the only true statement is iii, making the correct answer E.

Powered ByGPT-5

Comments

Loading comments...