
Answer-first summary for fast verification
Answer: 0.69
## Explanation For an AR(1) model of the form: $$Y_t = c + \phi Y_{t-1} + \epsilon_t$$ Where: - c = intercept = 0.24 - φ = AR parameter = 0.65 - ε_t = white noise error term The mean-reverting level (long-term mean) of the time series is calculated as: $$\text{Mean-reverting level} = \frac{c}{1 - \phi}$$ Substituting the given values: $$\text{Mean-reverting level} = \frac{0.24}{1 - 0.65} = \frac{0.24}{0.35} = 0.6857$$ This means the time series will tend to revert to approximately 0.69 over the long term. **Key Points:** - The mean-reverting level represents the long-term equilibrium value that the time series tends to approach - For an AR(1) model, this is calculated as intercept divided by (1 - AR parameter) - The result 0.6857 rounds to 0.69, which matches option A - This calculation assumes the time series is stationary (|φ| < 1)
Author: Tanishq Prabhu
Ultimate access to all questions.
An investment analyst wishes to forecast the future returns based on the prevailing interest rate then. The analyst chooses AR times series to model the monthly interest rates movement over 20 years. The equivalent AR(1) model has an intercept of 0.24 and an AR parameter of 0.65. What is the mean-reverting value of the times series used by the analyst?
A
0.69
B
0.56
C
0.65
D
0.54
No comments yet.