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Two parties decide to engage in a 2-year credit default swap. Assume that the reference entity is BAC Corporation. The notional amount of the contract is 8.5 million at the time of default. Which of the following is most likely correct?
Explanation:
In a credit default swap (CDS), the protection seller compensates the protection buyer in the event of a default. The compensation amount is typically the difference between the notional amount of the contract and the market value of the defaulted bond. In this case, the notional amount is 8.5 million. Therefore, the protection buyer receives $1.5 million in compensation. This is the fundamental principle of a CDS - it provides insurance against the risk of default. The protection buyer pays a premium to the protection seller for this insurance, and in return, the protection seller agrees to compensate the protection buyer if a specified credit event, such as a default, occurs.
Choice B is incorrect. The protection buyer does not continue to pay premiums for one more year. In a credit default swap agreement, once a default event occurs, the contract is terminated and no further premiums are required to be paid by the protection buyer.
Choice C is incorrect. The protection buyer does not deliver the bond to the protection seller in this scenario as it's a cash-settled contract. In cash settlement, the difference between par value and market value of defaulted bond (recovery rate) is paid by the seller to the buyer; there's no physical delivery of bonds.