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Financial Risk Manager Part 1

Financial Risk Manager Part 1

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Q.414 In 2005, a certain American investment firm decided to invest in an assortment of collateralized debt obligations (CDOs). To protect itself, the firm also purchased a credit default swap. This implied that:

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Explanation:

Explanation

This question tests understanding of credit default swaps (CDS) as credit risk management tools.

Correct Answer: A

A credit default swap (CDS) is a financial derivative that functions like insurance against credit events such as defaults. In this scenario:

  • The investment firm is the protection buyer
  • The firm pays periodic fixed fees (premiums) to the protection seller
  • In return, the firm receives contingent payments if a credit event occurs (such as default on the CDOs)

This structure allows the firm to hedge its credit risk exposure from the CDO investments.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

B: Incorrect because:

  • CDS does not provide 100% protection (counterparty risk exists)
  • Cash inflows from CDOs are never guaranteed regardless of CDS protection

C: Incorrect because CDS contracts typically involve periodic premium payments, not a single upfront fee.

D: Incorrect because contingent payments are triggered by credit events, not automatically at the end of CDO contracts.

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