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Financial Risk Manager Part 1

Financial Risk Manager Part 1

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While the financial meltdown of 2007-2008 started in the US, it spread fast to other countries leading to worldwide economic turmoil. Which of the following statements best describes why the crisis spread so fast?

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TTanishq



Explanation:

Explanation

The global financial crisis of 2007-2008 spread rapidly worldwide primarily because:

Key Mechanism:

  • Foreign banks in Asia, Europe and other regions had purchased substantial amounts of collateralized US debt (primarily mortgage-backed securities and CDOs)
  • When US mortgage defaults rose dramatically, the value of these collateralized debt instruments plummeted
  • This caused massive losses for international banks that held these assets
  • Consequently, global lending froze as banks became risk-averse and faced solvency issues

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

Choice A: While US banks did finance foreign banks, this was not the primary transmission mechanism. The crisis was fundamentally a solvency issue related to toxic assets, not just a liquidity problem.

Choice B: The crisis spread was not primarily due to emerging market instability concerns. The core issue was direct exposure to US housing market through complex financial instruments.

Choice C: While declining US demand for exports did contribute to the global recession, this was a secondary effect that occurred after the financial contagion had already spread through the banking system.

The correct transmission mechanism was the global interconnectedness of financial institutions through complex US mortgage-backed securities, which created a domino effect when the underlying mortgages defaulted.

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