
Answer-first summary for fast verification
Answer: No
## Explanation Parker's actions **do not violate** the Standard related to priority of transactions for the following reasons: 1. **Fair Treatment of Clients**: The Standard requires that investment transactions for clients and employers have priority over transactions in which a member is the beneficial owner. Parker is not giving preferential treatment to her own account over clients. 2. **Family Members as Clients**: - **Husband (non-fee paying client)**: Since he is not a fee-paying client, he is not entitled to the same allocation priority as fee-paying clients. - **Aunt (fee-paying client)**: While she is a fee-paying client, Parker is allocating shares to "all other fee-paying clients first" - this suggests she is treating all fee-paying clients equally, and her aunt is simply not receiving allocations due to oversubscription, not due to discriminatory treatment. 3. **No Self-Dealing**: Parker is not allocating shares to herself or her immediate family ahead of clients. The fact that her husband and aunt don't get allocations is a result of legitimate allocation policies, not preferential treatment to the manager's benefit. **Key Point**: The Standard focuses on ensuring client transactions take priority over personal transactions, not on guaranteeing equal allocation outcomes for all clients, especially when family members are involved as clients.
Author: LeetQuiz Editorial Team
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Does Parker's actions violate the Standard relate to priority of transactions?
A
No
B
Yes, by not allocating IPO shares to her husband similarly with other clients
C
Yes, by not allocating IPO shares to her aunt similarly with other fee-paying clients
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