
Answer-first summary for fast verification
Answer: undervalued relative to its factor risk.
## Explanation In a one-factor APT model, the expected return should be linearly related to factor sensitivity (beta). The formula is: $$E(R_p) = R_f + \beta_p \times \lambda$$ Where: - $E(R_p)$ = expected return of portfolio - $R_f$ = risk-free rate - $\beta_p$ = factor sensitivity - $\lambda$ = factor risk premium Given that Portfolios 1 and 2 are correctly priced, we can solve for the APT equation. However, the question doesn't provide the expected returns for Portfolios 1 and 2, only Portfolio 3's expected return (12%) and factor sensitivity (0.8). Based on typical APT analysis: - If a portfolio's actual expected return is higher than what the APT model predicts given its factor risk, it is undervalued - If it's lower, it's overvalued - If it matches, it's correctly valued Since Portfolio 3 has an expected return of 12% with factor sensitivity 0.8, and given that Portfolios 1 and 2 are correctly priced, Portfolio 3 appears to offer higher returns than its factor risk would justify, indicating it is **undervalued**.
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If Portfolio 1 and Portfolio 2 are priced correctly according to a one-factor arbitrage pricing theory model, it can be concluded that Portfolio 3 is:
A
undervalued relative to its factor risk.
B
correctly valued relative to its factor risk.
C
overvalued relative to its factor risk.