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Financial Risk Manager Part 1

Financial Risk Manager Part 1

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Q-41. Solution: A
d1=ln⁡(1.34/1.40)+(4%−3%+30%22)×130%1=0.0373d_1 = \frac{\ln(1.34/1.40) + \left(4\% - 3\% + \frac{30\%^2}{2}\right) \times 1}{30\%\sqrt{1}} = 0.0373d1​=30%1​ln(1.34/1.40)+(4%−3%+230%2​)×1​=0.0373 d2=d1−30%1=−0.2627d_2 = d_1 - 30\%\sqrt{1} = -0.2627d2​=d1​−30%1​=−0.2627 N(d1)=0.5149andN(d2)=0.3964N(d_1) = 0.5149 \quad \text{and} \quad N(d_2) = 0.3964N(d1​)=0.5149andN(d2​)=0.3964

The foreign risk-free rate replaces the dividend yield, such that:

c = 1.34e^{-3\%}N(d_1) - 1.40e^{-4\%}N(d_2) = \$0.1364 $$_

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