A risk analyst at a bank is explaining to an intern the use of the Arbitrage Pricing Theory (APT) in estimating the expected return of a security. The risk analyst uses the following APT formula in the discussion: $R_i = E(Ri) + \beta_{i1}[I_1 - E(I_1)] + \cdots + \beta_{iK}[I_K - E(I_K)] + e_i$ Which of the following is a correct interpretation of $\beta_{ik}$? | Financial Risk Manager Part 1 Quiz - LeetQuiz