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Financial Risk Manager Part 1

Financial Risk Manager Part 1

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A risk analyst at a bank is explaining to an intern the use of the Arbitrage Pricing Theory (APT) in estimating the expected return of a security. The risk analyst uses the following APT formula in the discussion:

Ri=E(Ri)+βi1[I1−E(I1)]+⋯+βiK[IK−E(IK)]+eiR_i = E(Ri) + \beta_{i1}[I_1 - E(I_1)] + \cdots + \beta_{iK}[I_K - E(I_K)] + e_iRi​=E(Ri)+βi1​[I1​−E(I1​)]+⋯+βiK​[IK​−E(IK​)]+ei​

Which of the following is a correct interpretation of βik\beta_{ik}βik​?_

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