
Explanation:
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
When a firm sells an option, it receives the premium upfront from the counterparty. This means the firm has no credit exposure to the counterparty because:
In contrast, if the firm were buying an option, it would have counterparty credit risk because:
All the given information about the option parameters (time to expiration, strike price, underlying price, volatility, risk-free rate) is not needed to answer this question, as the key insight is understanding the directional nature of counterparty credit risk in option transactions.
Key Concept: Selling options creates zero counterparty credit exposure; buying options creates counterparty credit exposure.
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A derivative trading firm sells a European-style call option on stock JKJ with a time to expiration of 9 months, a strike price of EUR 45, an underlying asset price of EUR 67, and implied annual volatility of 27%. The annual risk-free interest rate is 2.5%. What is the trading firm's counterparty credit exposure from this transaction?
A
EUR 0
B
EUR 9.45
C
EUR 19.63
D
EUR 22.00
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