
Answer-first summary for fast verification
Answer: EUR 0
**Correct Answer: A** **Explanation:** When a firm sells an option, it receives the premium upfront from the counterparty. This means the firm has no credit exposure to the counterparty because: - The premium is paid immediately at the beginning of the transaction - The firm has already received the payment and has no further claims against the counterparty - The counterparty cannot default on a payment that has already been made In contrast, if the firm were buying an option, it would have counterparty credit risk because: - The firm would pay the premium upfront - The counterparty would have an obligation to deliver the option payoff if it becomes profitable - The counterparty could default on this future obligation All the given information about the option parameters (time to expiration, strike price, underlying price, volatility, risk-free rate) is not needed to answer this question, as the key insight is understanding the directional nature of counterparty credit risk in option transactions. **Key Concept:** Selling options creates zero counterparty credit exposure; buying options creates counterparty credit exposure.
Author: LeetQuiz .
Ultimate access to all questions.
A derivative trading firm sells a European-style call option on stock JKJ with a time to expiration of 9 months, a strike price of EUR 45, an underlying asset price of EUR 67, and implied annual volatility of 27%. The annual risk-free interest rate is 2.5%. What is the trading firm's counterparty credit exposure from this transaction?
A
EUR 0
B
EUR 9.45
C
EUR 19.63
D
EUR 22.00
No comments yet.