LeetQuiz Logo
About•Privacy Policy•contact@leetquiz.com
RedditX
© 2025 LeetQuiz All rights reserved.
Financial Risk Manager Part 2

Financial Risk Manager Part 2

Get started today

Ultimate access to all questions.


Comments

Loading comments...

A manager of collateralized loan obligations (CLOs) is reviewing the performance of a CLO that has a pool of 50 identical loans, each priced at its par value of GBP 1 million. The underlying loan assets are floating-rate obligations that pay a fixed spread of 150 bps over LIBOR. The coupons and interest payments on the following liabilities are made on an annual basis and occur at the end of the year:

LiabilitiesAmount (GBP)Coupon
Senior debt37,500,000LIBOR + 45 bps
Mezzanine debt10,000,000LIBOR + 300 bps
Equity2,500,000—

The manager reports that the CLO initially has no overcollateralization, and the annual excess spread flowing into the overcollateralization account has a limit of GBP 250,000. Suppose the LIBOR curve remains flat at 4% in the first year, and assuming no defaults in the collateral pool and no management and transaction fees, what are the correct amounts that the manager would post to the overcollateralization account and to the equity tranche after the first year?

Overcollateralization Account     Equity Tranche

Real Exam
Community
LLeetQuiz



Powered ByGPT-5