A CRO at an investment bank has asked the risk department to evaluate the bank's derivative position with a counterparty over a 3-year period. The risk department assumes that the counterparty's default probability follows a constant hazard rate process. The table below presents trade and forecast data on the CDS spread, the expected exposure, and the recovery rate of the counterparty: | | Year 1 | Year 2 | Year 3 | |-------------------------|--------|--------|--------| | Expected positive exposure (AUD million) | 14 | 14 | 14 | | CDS spread (bps) | 200 | 300 | 400 | | Recovery rate (%) | 80 | 70 | 60 | Additionally, the CRO has presented the risk team with the following set of assumptions to use in conducting the analysis: - The investment bank and the counterparty have signed a credit support annex to cover this exposure, which requires collateral posting of AUD 11 million. - The current risk-free rate of interest is 3% and the term structure of interest rates remains flat over the 3-year horizon. - The collateral and the expected positive exposure values remain stable as projected over the 3-year life of the contract. - The expected positive exposure and the collateral are assessed by using the same discount factors. - The probability of default of the bank is 0% per year. Given the information and the assumptions above, what is the correct estimate of the unilateral CVA for this position? | Financial Risk Manager Part 2 Quiz - LeetQuiz