
Answer-first summary for fast verification
Answer: $169,412
## Explanation To calculate the face value of the offsetting TIPS position needed for the regression hedge, we use the following formula: \[ \text{Face Value of Hedge} = \text{Face Value of Position} \times \frac{\text{DV01}_{\text{Position}}}{\text{DV01}_{\text{Hedge}}} \times \beta \] Where: - Face Value of Position = $100,000 - DV01 of T-bond (position) = 0.072 - DV01 of TIPS (hedge) = 0.051 - β (hedge adjustment factor) = 1.2 \[ \text{Face Value of TIPS} = 100,000 \times \frac{0.072}{0.051} \times 1.2 \] First, calculate the DV01 ratio: \[ \frac{0.072}{0.051} = 1.4117647 \] Then multiply by the face value: \[ 100,000 \times 1.4117647 = 141,176.47 \] Finally, multiply by the beta coefficient: \[ 141,176.47 \times 1.2 = 169,411.76 \approx \$169,412 \] Therefore, the face value of the offsetting TIPS position needed is **$169,412**, which corresponds to option B. This regression hedge accounts for the historical relationship between the two instruments through the beta coefficient, providing a more accurate hedge than a simple DV01-based hedge.
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Assume that a trader wishes to set up a hedge such that he sells $100,000 of a Treasury bond and buys Treasury TIPS as a hedge. Using a historical yield regression framework, assume the DV01 on the T-bond is 0.072, the DV01 on the TIPS is 0.051, and the hedge adjustment factor (regression beta coefficient) is 1.2. What is the face value of the offsetting TIPS position needed to carry out this regression hedge?
A
$138,462
B
$169,412
C
$268,499
D
$280,067
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