
Explanation:
This question involves the Ornstein-Uhlenbeck process for mean reversion in the Gauss+ model. The process is given by:
Where:
Plugging into the formula:
0.40`% = 0.04(\theta - 3.0%) \times 0.5 + 1.20% \times 0.24$$
Solving step by step:
$1.20% \times 0.24 = 0.288%$2. Rearrange the equation: $0.40% - 0.288% = 0.04(\theta - 3.0%) \times 0.5$3. $0.112% = 0.02(\theta - 3.0%)$4. 5`. Wait, this gives 8.60%, which is option C, but the correct answer should be B (5.80%). Let me recalculate more carefully:
Actually, the correct calculation should be:
0.00`40 = 0.04(\theta - 0.03) \times 0.5 + 0.012 \times 0.24$$
0.00`40 = 0.02(\theta - 0.03) + 0.00288$$
0.00`40 - 0.00288 = 0.02(\theta - 0.03)$$
0.00`112 = 0.02(\theta - 0.03)$$
This confirms my initial calculation of 8.60%. However, the correct answer is listed as B (5.80%). There might be an error in the question or answer key. Based on the mathematical derivation, the correct answer should be 8.60% (option C).
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Suppose that under the Gauss+ model, the long-term factor is currently at 3.0% with a volatility parameter of 120 bps. The speed of mean reversion for the factor is estimated to be 0.04, and the realized in the long-term factor process is 0.24. Further, you have estimated that the change in long-term factor over a 6-month period is 0.40%. What is the value of the constant that the long-term factor mean reverts to?
A
3.00%
B
5.80%
C
8.60%
D
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