
Ultimate access to all questions.
Explanation:
Under the Basic Indicator Approach (BIA) for operational risk capital calculation:
Key Formula: Capital Charge = α × [Σ(GI₁...ₙ) ÷ n]
Where:
Given Data:
$130 million (positive)$60 million (negative - exclude from calculation)$230 million (positive)Calculation Steps:
$130 million + $230 million = $360 million$360 million ÷ 2 = $180 million$180 million = $27 millionWhy other options are incorrect:
$15.0 million: This would result from using all 3 years including the negative year$18.0 million: This doesn't match the proper BIA calculation$34.5 million: This would be 15% of $230 million only, ignoring the other positive yearThe correct answer is $27.0 million.
A bank uses the basic indicator approach (BIA) to determine their capital charge for operational risk under Basel II (or Basel III). The bank's annual gross income (GI) over the previous three years was +$130 million (T-3), -$60 million loss (T-2), and +$230 million (T-1). What is the bank's operational risk capital charge?
A
$15.0 million
B
$18.0 million
C
$27.0 million
D
$34.5 million
No comments yet.