
Explanation:
When LVaR (Liquidity-adjusted Value at Risk) is expressed as asset VaR plus the cost of liquidation under normal time, the ratio LVaR/VaR represents how much larger the liquidity-adjusted risk measure is compared to the standard VaR.
Let's analyze each option:
A. It should fall in proportion with the assumed spread - This is incorrect. When the spread increases, the liquidation cost component of LVaR increases, making LVaR larger relative to VaR. Therefore, the ratio LVaR/VaR should increase, not fall, with higher spreads.
B. It should fall as the confidence level increases - This is incorrect. As confidence level increases, both VaR and LVaR increase, but the liquidation cost component remains relatively constant. The ratio typically becomes closer to 1 at higher confidence levels since the liquidation cost becomes a smaller proportion of the total risk measure.
C. It should rise as the holding period increases - This is CORRECT. As the holding period increases:
Actually, let me correct this analysis. When holding period increases, VaR increases (√T scaling), but the liquidation cost component typically remains more stable. Therefore, LVaR/VaR ratio should actually decrease as holding period increases, not rise.
The correct answer should be that the ratio should fall as the holding period increases, but since option C says "rise" and that's incorrect, and options A and B are also incorrect, there appears to be an issue with the question options.
Based on standard LVaR theory:
Therefore, none of the given options are correct based on standard LVaR formulation.
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Dowd defines a ratio of LVaR/VaR. Which of the following should be true about this ratio when LVaR is expressed as asset VaR plus the cost of liquidation under normal time?
A
It should fall in proportion with the assumed spread
B
It should fall as the confidence level increases
C
It should rise as the holding period increases