
Explanation:
Step 1: Calculate the new asset value
Step 2: Calculate the new liability value
Step 3: Calculate the surplus
Wait, let me recalculate this carefully:
Actually, the percentage change in liabilities is: ΔL/L = -Modified Duration × Δy = -12.5 × 0.012 = -0.15 = -15%
So new liabilities = 85 × (1 - 0.15) = 85 × 0.85 = EUR 72.25 billion
Then surplus = 85 - 72.25 = EUR 12.75 billion
But looking at the options, EUR 12.75 billion is option C, not D. Let me double-check:
Alternative calculation:
This gives EUR 12.75 billion, which is option C.
However, the correct answer appears to be D (EUR 12.57 billion). Let me check if there's a more precise calculation:
Using the exact formula: New liabilities = 85 × (1 - 12.5 × 0.012) = 85 × (1 - 0.15) = 85 × 0.85 = 72.25 billion
Wait, but 12.5 × 0.012 = 0.15 exactly, so it should be exactly 15% decrease.
Let me reconsider - perhaps the question is testing the understanding that when yields increase, bond prices decrease, so liabilities (which are like bonds) decrease in value. Therefore:
Given that EUR 12.75 billion is option C, but the correct answer is marked as D, I need to check if there's a different interpretation.
Final calculation:
This corresponds to option C.
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On January 1, 2006, a pension fund has assets of EUR 100 billion and is fully invested in the equity market. It has EUR 85 billion in liabilities. During 2006, the equity market declined by 15% and yields increases by 1.2%. If the modified duration of the liabilities is 12.5, what is the pension fund's surplus on December 31, 2006?
A
EUR 15.00 billion
B
EUR 12.93 billion
C
EUR 12.75 billion
D
EUR 12.57 billion