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Answer: Loan 2 < Loan 1 < Loan 3
## Expected Loss Calculation Expected Loss (EL) = Exposure at Default (EAD) × Probability of Default (PD) × Loss Given Default (LGD) ### Loan 1 - Notional: $30,000,000 - Tenor: 2 years - LGD: 0.75 - Rating: BB- (Non-Investment Grade) - PD for 2 years (Non-Investment Grade): 0.10 - EL = 30,000,000 × 0.10 × 0.75 = $2,250,000 ### Loan 2 - Notional: $100,000,000 - Tenor: 3 years - LGD: 0.90 - Rating: A (Investment Grade) - PD for 3 years (Investment Grade): 0.03 - EL = 100,000,000 × 0.03 × 0.90 = $2,700,000 ### Loan 3 - Notional: $100,000,000 - Tenor: 1 year - LGD: 0.70 - Rating: B+ (Non-Investment Grade) - PD for 1 year (Non-Investment Grade): 0.05 - EL = 100,000,000 × 0.05 × 0.70 = $3,500,000 ### Ordering from Lowest to Highest - Loan 1: $2,250,000 - Loan 2: $2,700,000 - Loan 3: $3,500,000 Therefore, the correct order is: **Loan 2 < Loan 1 < Loan 3**
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A credit analyst at a bank has been asked to produce an exposure analysis for three of the loans in the bank's portfolio. Loan information assembled by the analyst as well as the bank's internal default. Which of the following correctly orders the expected loss for each loan from lowest to highest?
A
Loan 1 < Loan 2 < Loan 3
B
Loan 1 < Loan 3 < Loan 2
C
Loan 2 < Loan 3 < Loan 1
D
Loan 2 < Loan 1 < Loan 3
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