
Explanation:
In the Merton model for credit risk, the value of risky debt can be calculated using the put-call parity relationship:
Value of Risky Debt = Value of Risk-Free Debt - Value of Put Option
Where:
$6.95 million (given)Face Value = $80 million
Risk-free rate (r) = 4% = 0.04
Time to maturity (T) = 5 years
Value of Risk-Free Debt = $80 million × e^(-0.04 × 5)
= $80 million × e^(-0.20)
= $80 million × 0.8187
= $65.50 million
Value of Risky Debt = $65.50 million - $6.95 million
= $58.55 million
However, this calculation gives us $58.55 million, which corresponds to option C. But let me verify this approach.
Actually, in the Merton model: Value of Debt = Value of Risk-Free Debt - Put Option Value
So:
Value of Debt = $65.50 million - $6.95 million = $58.55 million
But wait, let me reconsider. The put option value represents the credit risk premium. The correct relationship is:
Value of Debt = Present Value of Face Value - Put Option Value
So:
Value of Debt = $65.50 million - $6.95 million = $58.55 million
This matches option C ($58.55 million). However, let me double-check the calculation:
Present Value of Face Value = $80 × e^(-0.04×5) = $80 × 0.8187 = $65.496 million ≈ $65.50 million
Value of Debt = $65.50 million - $6.95 million = $58.55 million
Therefore, the correct answer is C ($58.55 million)
The put option value of $6.95 million represents the cost of credit insurance, which is subtracted from the risk-free value of the debt to get the market value of the risky debt.
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A firm has an asset value of $110 million with asset volatility of 30% per annum. Its only debt is a zero-coupon bond with face value of $80 million that matures in five years. The risk-free rate is 4%. The Black-Scholes Merton price of a put option on the firm's assets with strike price equal to the face value of the bond is $6.95 million. Which is nearest to the current value of the firm's debt?
A
$6.95 million
B
$41.30 million
C
$58.55 million
D
$65.50 million
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