Risk Averse Bank (RAB) has made a loan of USD 100 million at 8% per annum. RAB wants to enter into a total return swap under which it will pay the interest on the loan plus the change in the mark-to-market value of the loan, and in exchange, RAB will get LIBOR + 30 basis points. Settlement payments are made annually. What is the cash flow for RAB on the first settlement date if the mark-to-market value of the loan falls by 2% and LIBOR is 6%?