
Explanation:
Let's analyze both statements:
$400,000,000 + $120,000,000 + $50,000,000 = $570,000,000$600,000,000$600,000,000 - $570,000,000 = $30,000,000$30 million in overcollateralizationBoth statements I and II are accurate, so the correct answer is C. Both I and II.
Credit Enhancement Mechanisms:
Ultimate access to all questions.
No comments yet.
A collateralized mortgage obligation (CMO) has the characteristics below. Which of the following are most accurate regarding its credit enhancement?
| Return on assets | 8.75% |
|---|---|
| Senior tranche | $400,000,000 |
| Subordinated tranche A | $120,000,000 |
| Subordinated tranche B | $50,000,000 |
| Value of collateral | $600,000,000 |
| Interest paid on liabilities of SPE | 7.50% |
| Fees and expenses | 0.60% |
I. There is overcollateralization.
II. The investors gain credit enhancement through the excess spread.
A
I only.
B
II only.
C
Both I and II.
D
Neither I nor II.