
Ultimate access to all questions.
Explanation:
To solve this arbitrage pricing problem, we need to find the fair price of the 8% coupon bond using the information from the other two bonds.
Given:
Step 1: Set up cash flow equations Let's assume a face value of USD 100 for all bonds.
For the 10% coupon bond:
For the 8% coupon bond:
Step 2: Find discount factors Let d₁ = discount factor for 6 months Let d₂ = discount factor for 12 months
From zero-coupon bond: 100 × d₂ = 96.12 ⇒ d₂ = 0.9612
From 10% coupon bond: 5 × d₁ + 105 × d₂ = 106.20 5 × d₁ + 105 × 0.9612 = 106.20 5 × d₁ + 100.926 = 106.20 5 × d₁ = 5.274 d₁ = 1.0548
Step 3: Price the 8% coupon bond Price = 4 × d₁ + 104 × d₂ Price = 4 × 1.0548 + 104 × 0.9612 Price = 4.2192 + 99.9648 = 104.184
However, this gives USD 104.18, which matches option D, but let me verify the calculation.
Correction: I made an error in the discount factor calculation. Let me recalculate properly.
From zero-coupon bond: 100 × d₂ = 96.12 ⇒ d₂ = 0.9612 ✓
From 10% coupon bond: 5 × d₁ + 105 × 0.9612 = 106.20 5 × d₁ + 100.926 = 106.20 5 × d₁ = 5.274 d₁ = 1.0548
Wait, this can't be right because discount factors should be less than 1. The issue is that I'm treating the 6-month cash flow incorrectly. The zero-coupon bond gives us the 1-year discount factor, but we need to find the 6-month discount factor from the coupon bond.
Let me use a different approach:
Let P₀ = price of zero-coupon bond = 96.12 Let P₁₀ = price of 10% coupon bond = 106.20
We can create a synthetic 8% coupon bond using the other two bonds:
8% coupon bond = 0.8 × (10% coupon bond) + 0.2 × (zero-coupon bond)
Let me verify:
This doesn't work. Let me use the correct approach:
We need to find weights w₁ and w₂ such that: w₁ × (cash flows of 10% bond) + w₂ × (cash flows of zero-coupon bond) = cash flows of 8% bond
At 6 months: w₁ × 5 + w₂ × 0 = 4 ⇒ w₁ = 0.8 At 12 months: w₁ × 105 + w₂ × 100 = 104 0.8 × 105 + w₂ × 100 = 104 84 + 100w₂ = 104 100w₂ = 20 w₂ = 0.2
So the 8% bond can be replicated by: 0.8 units of 10% bond + 0.2 units of zero-coupon bond
Price = 0.8 × 106.20 + 0.2 × 96.12 Price = 84.96 + 19.224 = 104.184 ≈ USD 104.18
Therefore, the correct answer is D. USD 104.18.
You have been asked to check for arbitrage opportunities in the Treasury bond market by comparing the cash flows of selected bonds with the cash flows of combinations of other bonds. If a 1-year zero-coupon bond is priced at USD 96.12 and a 1-year bond paying a 10% coupon semi-annually is priced at USD 106.20, what should be the price of a 1-year Treasury bond that pays a coupon of 8% semiannually?
A
USD 98.10
B
USD 101.23
C
USD 103.35
D
USD 104.18
No comments yet.