Jasmine Tang, FRM, is using a simple method called "successive bisection" to determine the implied volatility of a traded option. Jasmine starts with a volatility of zero (this gives a BSM price that is less than the option market price) and a volatility of 30% (this gives a BSM price that is higher than the option market price). She then takes the average of these two volatilities, i.e., 15%, as the new volatility and uses it to compute the option price using the BSM formula. The revised option price is now much closer to the market price but still a bit low. Which of the following statements correctly describes the next step that Jasmine should perform?