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Explanation:
In the Vasicek model:
Option A is incorrect: In the Vasicek model, values in the extreme left tail (not right tail) of the standard normal distribution represent default, not the right tail.
Option B is incorrect: A high value of the factor indicates a strong economy (low default rates), while a low value of represents economic weakness (high default rates).
Option C is incorrect: The factor is a common macroeconomic factor that affects all borrowers, not specific to individual companies. The coefficient (not ) would be higher for companies with more cyclical businesses.
Option D is correct: The model coefficient (or ) directly relates to the correlations between the default probability distributions of the loans in the portfolio. Specifically, the correlation between asset returns (and thus defaults) of two firms i and j is given by . Higher values of indicate stronger dependence on the common factor , leading to higher default correlations.
The Vasicek model is a one-factor Gaussian copula model where defaults are driven by both systematic risk (common factor ) and idiosyncratic risk (individual factor ).
Which of the following statements regarding the Vasicek model is correct?
A
The default probabilities of the individual loans in a portfolio are each mapped to the standard normal distribution , of which values in the extreme right tail represent default.
B
A low value of the factor indicates that the economy is strong, while a high value of represents economic weakness.
C
For corporate borrowers, the value of the factor is higher for loans to companies with more cyclical businesses.
D
The model coefficient directly relates to the correlations between the default probability distributions of the loans in the portfolio.
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