
Answer-first summary for fast verification
Answer: $0
The correct answer is **B: $0**. ### Detailed Step-by-Step Solution (FRM Part 1 Style): 1. **Calculate the contract size and confirm number of contracts** (given, but for completeness): Futures index level = 1,000 Multiplier = 250 **Value per contract** = 1,000 × 250 = **$250,000** Cash to equitize = $15,000,000 Contracts needed = 15,000,000 ÷ 250,000 = **60 contracts** (long position). 2. **Initial margin posted**: Initial margin per contract = **$12,500** Total initial margin = 60 × 12,500 = **$750,000** (This is deposited when the position is opened.) 3. **Maintenance margin requirement**: Maintenance margin per contract = **$10,000** Total maintenance margin = 60 × 10,000 = **$600,000** 4. **Mark-to-market at end of Day 1**: New futures index level = **995** Loss per point = $250 (the multiplier) Loss per contract = (1,000 – 995) × 250 = **5 × 250 = $1,250** Total loss on 60 contracts = 60 × 1,250 = **$75,000** 5. **Margin account balance after daily settlement**: Starting balance = $750,000 Minus daily loss (variation margin settlement) = –$75,000 **New balance = $675,000** 6. **Check against maintenance margin**: $675,000 **> $600,000** (still well above the maintenance level). → **No margin call** is issued. ### Key FRM Concept: Variation Margin vs. Margin Call - **Daily variation margin** (or settlement variation) is always calculated and settled via mark-to-market. The losing party (here, the long) pays the $75,000 loss to the clearinghouse, which is debited directly from the margin account. - However, the phrase **“variation margin does the portfolio manager have to advance”** in FRM-style questions typically refers to the **additional funds the manager must deposit** (i.e., the margin call amount) when the account equity falls **below** the maintenance margin. In this case, because the balance remains **above** maintenance margin after the loss, **no additional cash needs to be advanced**. The $75,000 is simply deducted from the existing margin account, and the position can continue without further action. - If the balance had fallen **below** $600,000, the manager would receive a margin call and would have to deposit enough variation margin to restore the account **back to the initial margin level** ($750,000). ### Why the Other Options Are Incorrect: - **A: $30,000** — No basis (perhaps a miscalculation of something like half the loss or wrong multiplier). - **C: $300,000** — Far too large; no relation to the numbers. - **D: $75,000** — This is the **daily mark-to-market loss**, but it does **not** require an additional deposit (“advance”) because the account stays above maintenance. This question tests understanding of **futures margin mechanics** (daily settlement + margin call trigger), a core topic in the **Financial Markets and Products** reading of FRM Part 1. The wording “have to advance” is the key trick — it implies an **out-of-pocket additional payment**, which is only required on a margin call. **Final Answer: B: $0**
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To utilize the cash position of assets under management, a portfolio manager enters into
a long futures position on the S&P 500 index with a multiplier of 250. The cash position
is $15 million with the current futures value of 1000, which requires the manager to long
60 contracts. If the current initial margin is $12500 per contract, and the current
maintenance margin is $10000 per contract, what variation margin does the portfolio
manager have to advance if the futures contract value falls to 995 at the end of the first
day of the position being placed?
A
$30,000
B
$0
C
$300,000
D
$75,000