
Explanation:
The financial institution is the fixed-rate payer (pays 3.0% semi-annually, receives LIBOR) on a $400 million notional swap with 9 months (0.75 years) remaining. There are two payment dates left: in 0.25 years and in 0.75 years.
$400m = +$6.0m (outflow for the institution).$400m = +$6.0m (inflow).$0.$0 (no discounting needed for a zero cash flow).$400m = $6.0m.$400m ≈ $4.4242m.$4.4242m – $6.0m = –$1.5758m (net outflow).$1.550 million.$0 + (–$1.550m) = –$1.550 million.The swap has negative value to the financial institution because it is locked into paying a fixed rate (3.0%) that is now higher than the prevailing forward LIBOR rate (≈2.2121%). It must make a net payment on the second exchange date, and the present value of that obligation is approximately $1.55 million.
Nearest answer: A: -$1.550 million
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Suppose that some time ago, a financial institution entered into a swap where it agreed to make semi-annual payments at a rate of 3.0% per annum and receive LIBOR on a notional principal of $400.0 million.
The swap now has a remaining life of only nine months (0.75 years). Payments will therefore be made 0.25 and 0.75 years from today.
The risk-free rates with continuous compounding is assumed to be the LIBOR zero rate, and currently, it is 2.20% for all maturities. Because the LIBOR zero rate curve is flat at 2.20%, the six-month forward rate beginning in three months, F(0.25, 0.75), is also 2.20% with continuous compounding and therefore is equal to: = 2.2121% with semi-annual compounding. The LIBOR rate applicable to the exchange in 0.25 years was determined 0.25 years ago; suppose it was 3.0% with semi-annual compounding (LIBOR has dropped in the meantime).Which is nearest to the present value of the swap to the financial institution?
A
-1.550 million
B
-287,300
C
+1.883 million
D
+2.940 million