
Ultimate access to all questions.
Answer-first summary for fast verification
Answer: 3.
## Explanation **Step 1: Calculate Year 1 incentive fee** - Year 1 profit = $25 million - Incentive fee rate = 20% - Year 1 incentive fee = 20% × $25 million = $5 million **Step 2: Calculate Year 2 performance** - Year 2 loss = $10 million - Since there's a clawback provision, the fund manager must return incentive fees from previous years if subsequent losses occur **Step 3: Apply clawback provision** - Total profit over 2 years = $25 million - $10 million = $15 million - Total incentive fee based on cumulative profit = 20% × $15 million = $3 million - Year 1 incentive fee paid = $5 million - Excess incentive fee = $5 million - $3 million = $2 million **Step 4: Determine total incentive fee for Years 1 and 2** - With clawback, the fund manager must return the $2 million excess - Net incentive fee = $5 million (Year 1) - $2 million (clawback) = $3 million - No incentive fee for Year 2 since there was a loss **Step 5: Verify calculation** Alternative calculation: - Cumulative profit after 2 years = $15 million - Total incentive fee = 20% × $15 million = $3 million **Key Concept**: A clawback provision requires fund managers to return previously paid incentive fees if subsequent losses reduce cumulative profits below the high-water mark. This aligns manager compensation with long-term fund performance rather than short-term gains. **Answer**: B. 3.
Author: LeetQuiz .
No comments yet.
An analyst gathers the following information (in $millions) about a hedge fund:
| Initial investment cost | 100 |
|---|---|
| Profit, Year 1 | 25 |
| Loss, Year 2 | 10 |
If the incentive fee is 20% and there is a clawback provision, the total incentive fee (in $millions) for Years 1 and 2 is:
A
B
C