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Answer: non-recourse loan.
## Explanation This question tests the understanding of **non-recourse loans** versus **recourse loans** in mortgage financing. ### Key Concepts: 1. **Non-Recourse Loan**: The lender's only collateral is the property itself. If the borrower defaults, the lender can only seize and sell the property to recover the loan amount. If the sale proceeds are insufficient to cover the outstanding loan balance, the lender cannot pursue the borrower's other assets for the deficiency. 2. **Recourse Loan**: The lender has the right to pursue the borrower's other assets if the property sale proceeds are insufficient to cover the outstanding loan balance. 3. **Bullet Loan**: A loan where the principal is repaid in a single lump sum at maturity, not directly related to the recourse/non-recourse distinction. ### Analysis of the Scenario: - Original mortgage: $1,000,000 - Current principal: $750,000 - Property sale price after foreclosure: $600,000 - Shortfall: $150,000 ($750,000 - $600,000) - The bank is **"only entitled to use these funds to satisfy the loan obligation"** - this is the key phrase indicating the bank cannot pursue the homeowner for the $150,000 deficiency. ### Why Option C is Correct: The bank's limitation to only using the property sale proceeds ($600,000) to satisfy the $750,000 loan obligation, without pursuing the homeowner for the $150,000 shortfall, clearly describes a **non-recourse loan**. ### Why Other Options are Incorrect: - **Option A (bullet loan)**: Incorrect because a bullet loan refers to repayment structure (lump sum at maturity), not the lender's recourse rights. - **Option B (recourse loan)**: Incorrect because with a recourse loan, the bank could pursue the homeowner's other assets for the $150,000 deficiency, which is not the case here. ### Real-World Context: Non-recourse loans are common in commercial real estate and in some residential mortgages in certain jurisdictions. They protect borrowers from personal liability beyond the collateral property, but typically come with higher interest rates to compensate lenders for the additional risk.
Author: LeetQuiz .
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Two years ago, a homeowner took out a $1 million home mortgage from a bank. The current principal on the loan is $750,000, and the homeowner has defaulted on the loan. Following foreclosure proceedings, the bank sells the property for $600,000 and is only entitled to use these funds to satisfy the loan obligation. The homeowner most likely had a:
A
bullet loan.
B
recourse loan.
C
non-recourse loan.