
Explanation:
According to the market model (also known as the single-index model), the abnormal return (alpha) is calculated as:
α = Actual Return - Expected Return
Where the expected return is calculated using the market model formula:
Expected Return = Risk-free rate + Beta × (Market Return - Risk-free rate)
Calculate the market risk premium: Market Return - Risk-free rate = 12.0% - 2.0% = 10.0%
Calculate the expected return for the security: Expected Return = 2.0% + 0.8 × (12.0% - 2.0%) Expected Return = 2.0% + 0.8 × 10.0% Expected Return = 2.0% + 8.0% = 10.0%
Calculate the abnormal return (alpha): α = Actual Return - Expected Return α = 10.5% - 10.0% = 0.5%
Wait, this gives us 0.5%, which corresponds to option B. However, let me double-check the calculation.
Actually, I need to reconsider. The market model formula is:
R_i = α_i + β_i × R_m + ε_i
Where:
But in this context, we're calculating the abnormal return based on realized returns:
Abnormal Return = Actual Security Return - [Risk-free rate + Beta × (Market Return - Risk-free rate)]
Let me recalculate:
Expected Return = 2.0% + 0.8 × (12.0% - 2.0%) Expected Return = 2.0% + 0.8 × 10.0% Expected Return = 2.0% + 8.0% = 10.0%
Abnormal Return = 10.5% - 10.0% = 0.5%
This gives 0.5%, which is option B.
However, looking at the options, -1.1% (A) would be incorrect based on this calculation. Let me check if there's an alternative interpretation:
Some sources might calculate abnormal return as: Abnormal Return = (Security Return - Risk-free rate) - Beta × (Market Return - Risk-free rate)
This would be: (10.5% - 2.0%) - 0.8 × (12.0% - 2.0%) = 8.5% - 0.8 × 10.0% = 8.5% - 8.0% = 0.5%
Still 0.5%.
Wait, let me check if there's a calculation error:
Option A (-1.1%) calculation: If someone mistakenly used: 10.5% - (2.0% + 0.8 × 12.0%) = 10.5% - (2.0% + 9.6%) = 10.5% - 11.6% = -1.1%
This incorrect calculation would give -1.1%, which is option A.
Correct calculation should be: Expected Return = Risk-free rate + Beta × (Market Return - Risk-free rate) = 2.0% + 0.8 × (12.0% - 2.0%) = 2.0% + 0.8 × 10.0% = 2.0% + 8.0% = 10.0%
Abnormal Return = Actual Return - Expected Return = 10.5% - 10.0% = 0.5%
Therefore, the correct answer is B (0.5%).
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An analyst gathers the following information about a security and the market for a 12-month period:
| Realized Return | Beta | |
|---|---|---|
| Security | 10.5% | 0.8 |
| Market | 12.0% | 1.0 |
The risk-free rate is 2.0%. According to the market model, the security's abnormal return for the period is closest to:
A
-1.1%
B
0.5%
C
2.5%