
Explanation:
To calculate the value of the bond, we need to discount all future cash flows (coupon payments and principal repayment) at the market discount rate of 6%.
Given:
$1,000$1,000 = $70Calculation:
The bond value is the present value of all future cash flows:
$70 ÷ (1.06)¹ = $70 ÷ 1.06 = $66.0377$70 ÷ (1.06)² = $70 ÷ 1.1236 = $62.2997$70 ÷ (1.06)³ = $70 ÷ 1.191016 = $58.7733$1,000 ÷ (1.06)³ = $1,000 ÷ 1.191016 = $839.6193Total present value:
$66.0377 + $62.2997 + $58.7733 + $839.6193 = $1,026.73
Alternative calculation using formula:
Bond Value = C × [1 - (1+r)⁻ⁿ]/r + FV/(1+r)ⁿ
Where:
C = $70
r = 0.06
n = 3
FV = $1,000
Bond Value = $70 × [1 - (1.06)⁻³]/0.06 + $1,000/(1.06)³
= $70 × [1 - 0.839619]/0.06 + $839.6193
= $70 × [0.160381]/0.06 + $839.6193
= $70 × 2.673017 + $839.6193
= $187.1112 + $839.6193 = $1,026.73
Why this makes sense:
When the coupon rate (7%) is higher than the market discount rate (6%), the bond should trade at a premium to its par value. $1,026.73 represents a premium bond, which is consistent with this relationship.
Why other options are incorrect:
$973.76: This would be the value if the coupon rate were lower than the market rate (bond trading at a discount)$1,049.17: This is too high and doesn't match the correct present value calculationUltimate access to all questions.
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If the annual market discount rate is 6%, the value of a 3-year bond that has a 7% coupon rate, has a maturity (par) value of $1,000, and pays interest annually is closest to:
A
$973.76.
B
$1,026.73.
C
$1,049.17.