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A Financial Risk Manager exam candidate suggests that a model based on financial theory is likely to lead to a high degree of out-of-sample forecast accuracy. Which of the following best explains why the candidate is correct?
A
A solid financial background significantly increases the chances of the model working in the out-of-sample period as well as for the sample data used to estimate the model’s parameters
B
A financial background increases the chances of use of authentic input data
C
Financial theory incorporates industry-wide variables
D
Financial theory would be easy to understand and research on
Explanation:
Explanation:
A model based on solid financial theory is more likely to produce accurate out-of-sample forecasts because:
Theoretical foundation ensures robustness: Financial theory provides a framework that captures fundamental economic relationships and principles that should hold true across different time periods and market conditions.
Reduced data mining bias: Models based on theory are less susceptible to overfitting to sample-specific patterns, making them more generalizable to new data.
Structural validity: Theoretical models incorporate causal relationships rather than just statistical correlations, making them more likely to perform well when market conditions change.
Economic intuition: Financial theory provides economic intuition behind relationships, helping to distinguish between spurious correlations and meaningful economic relationships.
While options B, C, and D have some merit, they don't directly address why financial theory leads to better out-of-sample forecasting accuracy:
The key insight is that models grounded in financial theory capture fundamental economic relationships that are more likely to persist over time, leading to better out-of-sample performance.