
Explanation:
Correct answer: D
So the exception is D.
Ultimate access to all questions.
Q-106.1. Each of the following is true about collateralized mortgage obligations (CMOs) EXCEPT:
A
The primary difference between a CMO and an pass-through MBS is that a CMO structures the cash flows into tranches with various risk/return profiles
B
For a given mortgage pool, the value and duration of the MBS should equal, respectively, the sum of the tranche values and weighted average duration of the CMO
C
In a sequential CMO with four tranches, if Tranche D receives principal only after the other three Tranches are fully repaid, Tranche D offers greater interest rate risk (i.e., has the highest duration)
D
If we increase the PSA prepayment assumption (e.g., 100% PSA to 200% PSA), the duration of each Tranche in a CMO will increase
No comments yet.