Question-105.3. Barry the analyst calculated the effective duration of a pass-through MBS as 5.3 years. His effective duration is based on re-pricing the MBS with a yield shock of 50 basis points; i.e., current yield plus and minus 50 bps. However, Barry’s manager observes that Barry did not vary the prepayment (PSA) assumption when re-pricing under either the higher/lower yield scenarios. His manager argues that Barry should vary the PSA assumption as he varies the interest rate input. If Barry varies the PSA assumption as instructed by his manager, which of the following is TRUE? | Financial Risk Manager Part 1 Quiz - LeetQuiz