Q-725.2. Consider an at-the-money (ATM) stock option with a strike price of $50.00 and six months time to expiration; i.e., $S(0)=K=$50.00$ and $T=0.5$ years. Now imagine the following four variations (I., II., III. and IV.) on this option: I. It is a European CALL option on a non-dividend-paying stock while the risk-free rate is 3.0% II. It is a European CALL option on a stock that pays 1.60% dividend yield (D = $0.40) while the risk-free rate is 3.0% III. It is a European PUT option on a stock that pays 1.60% dividend yield (D = $0.40) while the risk-free rate is 3.0% IV. It is a European PUT option on a stock that pays 1.60% dividend yield (D = $0.40) while the risk-free rate is ZERO! For the three variations where the stock pays a continuous 1.60% dividend, the equivalent present value (over the life of the option) is given by the lump sum, D = $0.40. For those interested, although it is beyond the scope of this question, this translation is given by the following: the PV of dividend, D = -S(0)*[exp(-q*T)-1]; in this case, D = $50.00*[exp(-0.0160*0.5)-1] = $0.3980. Each of the above options has a different minimum value (aka, lower bound). However, among the four, which has the LOWEST minimum value? | Financial Risk Manager Part 1 Quiz - LeetQuiz