
Explanation:
Correct answer: C) The derivative's value is highly correlated (negatively or positively) to an underlying exposure at the corporation
A hedge is designed to offset the risk of an existing exposure. The strongest evidence that a derivative is a hedge is that its value moves in a way that is closely linked to the exposure being managed.
Why the other choices are not as good:
Therefore, the best support is high correlation with an underlying exposure.
Ultimate access to all questions.
No comments yet.
Question 21.8.2
Unaholding FinServices Corporation last quarter entered into a derivative contract that has since become a relatively large position. In response to a query by the Board's Risk Committee, the Chief Financial Officer (CFO) makes the argument that the derivate trade is a hedge rather than a speculation or an arbitrage. Which of the following is the best support for her argument that the trade is a hedge?
A
The potential loss on the derivative contract itself is capped (aka, limited) to a 25% loss
B
The derivative's initial value was zero, and trade is considered non-directional or range-bound
C
The derivative's value is highly correlated (negatively or positively) to an underlying exposure at the corporation
D
The net position (the derivative plus an underlying exposure) eliminates all risks; i.e., the net position is without risk