
Explanation:
The false statement is A.
Why it is false:
Why the others are true:
So, A is the incorrect statement.
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Q-732.2. Assume that signifies some measure of realized asset price variance and signifies some measure of realized asset price volatility. Also, is a prespecified fixed variance and is a prespecified fixed variance rate; aka, forward price. If is the notional amount, then the payoffs to a variance and a volatility swap are given by:
Against that mathematical context, each of the following is true about variance or volatility swaps EXCEPT which is false?
A
The VIX is an exchange-traded fund (ETF) that tracks the weighted-average price of a static portfolio of S&P 500 variance future contracts
B
It is easier to price a variance swap than a volatility swap because the variance swap can be replicated with a static hedge (portfolio of puts and calls)
C
Unlike a regular option or futures contract that settles based on a final spot price at maturity, the variance and volatility swap settle based on a series of prices
D
Because the volatility is the square root of the variance, Jensen’s inequality implies that the volatility forward price will be less than the square root of the variance forward price of the variance