
Explanation:
APT (Arbitrage Pricing Theory) is more flexible than CAPM because it allows multiple sources of systematic risk instead of assuming that all systematic risk can be captured by a single market factor. This makes APT a more general model for explaining expected returns and better reflects the complexity of real-world asset pricing.
B is incorrect. Although APT can be simplified to a single-factor form, its flexibility comes from allowing multiple factors, not the ability to collapse into one.
C is incorrect: APT indeed doesn't depend on a market portfolio, but that's not the reason for its flexibility — it's because of its multi-factor approach.
D is incorrect: This is tricky but incorrect — APT doesn't “eliminate” the need for systematic risk modelling; in fact, it explicitly relies on multiple systematic (not idiosyncratic) factors to explain returns. It only assumes that idiosyncratic risk is diversified away.
Ultimate access to all questions.
Q.236 Which of the following best explains why the APT is considered more flexible than the CAPM?
A
It uses multiple systematic factors, not just a single aggregated factor, to represent the total market risk.
B
Just like the CAPM, the APT allows for the use of a single factor through the single factor model which can be extended to include more factors.
C
With the APT, the benchmark portfolio in the security market line does not have to be the true market portfolio.
D
The APT eliminates the need for an equilibrium market portfolio assumption by focusing entirely on idiosyncratic risk.
No comments yet.