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Explanation:
Option I leaves the bank with domestic currency liabilities and foreign currency assets, creating a direct unhedged currency mismatch, thereby significantly exposing the bank to currency risk.
Option II hedges the currency risk because an FX swap involves both a spot transaction and a forward contract to reverse the transaction at a predetermined rate, locking in the exchange rate.
Option III aligns the currency of the liabilities with the currency of the assets (both are in the foreign currency), eliminating currency risk (though funding/liquidity risk remains).
Thus, only option I significantly exposes the bank to currency risk.
I. The bank can borrow domestic currency, and convert it in a straight FX spot transaction to purchase the foreign asset in that currency.
II. The bank can also use FX swaps to convert its domestic currency liabilities into foreign currency and purchase the foreign assets.
III. The bank can borrow foreign currency, either from the interbank market, from non-bank market participants, or from central banks
Which option significantly exposes the bank to currency risk?
A
None of the options
B
Only option I. significantly exposes the bank to currency risk
C
Only option III. significantly exposes the bank to currency risk
D
All three of the options
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