
Explanation:
The correct answer is C because it is the false statement.
The term 1/2 * (exp[-λ*(u-1)/4] - exp[-λ*u/4]) does not adjust swap rates to spot rates. Instead, it computes the probability of default occurring during that specific quarter (exp[-λ*(u-1)/4] - exp[-λ*u/4]) and multiplies it by 1/2 to model the accrued premium paid by the protection buyer, assuming the default happens exactly halfway through the period.
exp(-rt)), but the description accurately represents its function in the pricing model.LGD = 1 - Recovery Rate = 1 - 0.40 = 0.60.Ultimate access to all questions.
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308.1. In the reading, Malz³¹ solves the following equation to obtain a single hazard rate (λ) estimate given a single credit default swap (CDS) spread:
Source: Allan Malz, Financial Risk Management: Models, History, and Institutions (Hoboken, NJ: John Wiley & Sons, 2011)
In regard to this equation, each of the following is true EXCEPT, which is false?
A
The 445 highlighted in GREEN reflects a five-year credit default spread of 445 basis points which the protection buyer pays to the protection seller
B
The exp(0.045*u/4) highlighted in YELLOW models the price of a risk-free zero-coupon bond maturing at time (t) where 4.5% is a continuously compounded, flat swap rate curve
C
The term highlighted in BLUE that is 1/2*(exp[-λ*(u-1)/4] - exp[-λ*u/4]) adjusts the swap rates into spot rates
D
The 0.60 highlight in ORANGE reflects the loss given default (LGD) assumption because the recovery rate assumption is 40%.