
Explanation:
The Spread '01 (or DVCS - Dollar Value of a 1 basis point increase in Credit Spread) measures the absolute change in the bond's price for a 1 basis point (0.01%) change in the z-spread.
To calculate it mathematically, we can take the first derivative of the price function with respect to the z-spread (). Given
Taking the derivative with respect to :
At (or $0.03dP/dZ = -2.5 e^{-0.02} - 5 e^{-0.05} - 157.5 e^{-0.09}dP/dZ \approx -2.5(0.9802) - 5(0.9512) - 157.5(0.9139)dP/dZ \approx -2.4505 - 4.7561 - 143.9442 \approx -151.15$
This means for a $1Z` (per \`100$ par value). The Spread '01 represents a basis point change ($0.00011$ bp increase is $\151.15` \times 0.0001 = \`0.015115$ per $\ face value.
For a \`1,000,000$ par value, this scales up by a factor of (\`1,000,000 / \).
Spread '01 for \`1,000,000 = \0.01`5115 \times 10,000 = \`151.15`$.
Option C (\`151.16`$) is the nearest value.
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306.2. The risk-free spot rate curve is (unrealistically) steep and given by the following: 1.0% at 0.5 years, 2.0% at 1.0 year, and 3.0% at 1.5 years, with continuously compounded rates (this question being sourced in Malz).²⁷
Spot rates with continuous compounding
A 1.5-year bond that pays a 10.0% semi-annual coupon has a price of $105.62 such that its z-spread happens to be around 3.00%. Specifically, $105.62 = $5.00*exp[-(1.0%+3.0%)*0.5] + $5.00*exp[-(2.0%+3.0%)*1.0] + $105.00*exp[-(3.0%+3.0%)*1.5].
Which is nearest to the bond's Spread '01 (aka, DVCS) per $1,000,000 of par value?
A
$0.14
B
$36.09
C
$151.16
D
$2,836.24
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